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Question
Math
Posted 9 months ago

This is the graph of ff.

Let g(x)=0xf(t)dtg(x)=\int_{0}^{x} f(t) d t.
What is an appropriate calculus-based justification for the fact that gg is concave up?

Choose 1 answer:
(A) ff is positive.
(B) ff is increasing.
(C) ff is concave up.
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Answer from Sia
Posted 9 months ago
Solution by Steps
step 1
We are given the function g(x)=0xf(t)dtg(x) = \int_{0}^{x} f(t) \, dt and need to determine why gg is concave up
step 2
To determine the concavity of g(x)g(x), we need to consider the second derivative of g(x)g(x)
step 3
By the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, the first derivative of g(x)g(x) is g(x)=f(x)g'(x) = f(x)
step 4
The second derivative of g(x)g(x) is g(x)=f(x)g''(x) = f'(x)
step 5
For g(x)g(x) to be concave up, g(x)g''(x) must be positive. This means f(x)>0f'(x) > 0
step 6
Since the graph of ff is increasing, f(x)>0f'(x) > 0. Therefore, g(x)g(x) is concave up because ff is increasing
Answer
(B) ff is increasing.
Key Concept
Concavity of an integral function
Explanation
The concavity of the integral function g(x)g(x) is determined by the sign of the second derivative g(x)g''(x). Since g(x)=f(x)g''(x) = f'(x) and ff is increasing, f(x)>0f'(x) > 0, making g(x)g(x) concave up.

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